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submitted 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) by genfood@feddit.org to c/whitepeopletwitter@sh.itjust.works
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[-] damnedfurry@lemmy.world 4 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago)

if the top 1% paid a fractionof the taxes they used to.

Could you give an example of a year in which the top 1% paid enough taxes to satisfy this condition?

[-] angband@lemmy.world 10 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago)

To support around a 1% shortfall in fica, fica is about .5% of all income (feel free to fact check, I guessed a bit), 1950 fits the bill for their actual paid percentage of 41% vs their statutory 89%.

Edit: it'd be interesting to know how much of a fica shortfall 4% taxes on the 1% would cover. Somewhere in the range of 50-150% is my guess. Seems more than the projected shortfalls. Now, if they got taxed at 91% for real, noone else would have to pay [much] income tax, and they could raise fica on the rest of us without objection.

this post was submitted on 28 Jan 2026
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