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this post was submitted on 05 Feb 2026
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MeanwhileOnGrad
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Comparing the Soviet famine of the 30s to the Holocaust is blatant Holocaust revisionism, which is clearly what the word "holodomor" was coined to do. You should use a different term
Comparisons don't magically change the holocaust. Both were genocides, that's the point.
There's no revision going on here
Comparing the all time number one genocide to something that isn't a genocide is Holocaust denial
I avoid quantifying genocide since it can happen in all sorts of ways against all sorts of people. 100,000 dead aboriginals are still as bad as 6 million jews. Genocide is bad, regardless of how many are killed.
Why do you doubt that the Holodomor was a genocide? Either way, the Holodomor was man-made and an atrocity perpetrated by Stalin's government.
The famine hit all the major grain producing regions of the USSR, not just Ukraine, so it was awfully unspecific for being a targeted act of genocide.
They were exporting grain to fund their program of rapid industrialization, there was a crop failure, and they still exported the grain. Once it became clear to the Soviet government that there was a famine, they reversed course, but the damage was done. This was callous, an atrocity even, but it does not constitute genocide. The idea that it was a genocide was concocted by Ukrainian nationalist exiles (themselves SS veterans) after the war and used to equivocate Nazi Germany and Soviet Russia for cold war propaganda.
Thanks for posting in here. It's extremely rare for a tankie to actually venture to be challenged.
So first, the grain quotas were impossible to meet, and Ukraine specifically was targeted. Ukrainian villages were blacklisted, with food seizures, trade bans and other sorts of blockades. Once starvation began, Ukraine's borders were forcefully closed to stop peasants from fleeing, that's not something you do in a legitimate famine. This was also all during the time of suppressing Ukraine's culture. The fact that the policies were not applied uniformly across the USSR is what makes it a genocide.
They also didn't reverse course, they knew the starvation was occurring and continued it anyway, even continuing grain requisitions despite the famine. Literally stealing from the starving.
When it comes to genocide, we usually refer to the UN Genocide Convention, which is what we do for Palestine. Stalin saw the Ukranian nationalism as a threat and used the famine as a means of subjugation. The combined starvation, border closures, and ongoing dismantling of Ukrainian culture all indicate that it was a destructive intent towards Ukrainians as a national group. Either way, it's still an atrocity, and the USSR's response was morally wrong and led to many deaths.
It's also wild that you're holding Ukrainian peasants accountable as SS veterans when the Ukrainian émigrés were contesting famine conditionsin the 1930s, before WW2. Starvation and famine aren't something that just magically happens, it's gradual. And even if there were exiles, you don't starve peasants who have been on the land for generations.
Regardless, millions died, the state seized grain during starvation, restricted movement and trapped starving peasants and oppressed Ukrainian culture. Ukraine considers it to be a genocide, and so do many other nations.
Why do you doubt this?