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this post was submitted on 29 Dec 2023
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I was trying to provide an honest, helpful answer about the probable reason why the executive branch can take unilateral decisions about arms to Israel but not to Ukraine.
The current arrangements for arms supplies to Ukraine go back 2 years.
the current agreement with Israel doesn't even go back that far. Things change. We've been treating Ukraine as an important partner since at least the Obama administration. Bush Jr wanted them in NATO back in 2008. Nobody is contending that Israel has been an ally for longer. But Ukraine isn't exactly some rando, either. they're a key partner- and were, at least, an up-and-coming regional power house. a power house that Russia saw moving increasingly westward in it's political affiliations. (and Ukraine has historically been one of the world's largest grain suppliers. during the Soviet Era, they produced all the grain for the Soviet Union.)
The history lesson is great. But are you claiming that the treaties and procedures that allow the US executive to supply arms to Israel without congressional say-so and the procedures for supplying arms to Ukraine are the same?
Because I’m saying that is unlikely- and largely accounts for the current disparity