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this post was submitted on 25 Jun 2023
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The intent is always hard to prove. But I am glad that you agree that the only difference would be the intent ;)
Yet, if you read about some cases, you might see that the intent was not always proven or obvious, and some cases are considered genocide even without intent. For instance, take Holodomor, which is being more and more recognized as a genocide, even though unintentional. But I am happy to talk about other cases.
Let's remind ourselves that this is one person suggesting to not have kids on an online forum. Unless you're actually saying they have the intent or even a reason to believe they are targeting a specific demographic, this does not qualify nor is it close to qualifying to the definition of genocidee you gave.