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These mods on their power-trips really need to stop
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this post was submitted on 12 Apr 2024
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Have you ever wondered why that is? LGBTQ and non-binary people existed in the 19th century too, they just weren't safe to live as they chose to publicly. And when it was mentioned in literature it was typically couched in euphemisms of the period. I understand that you'd clearly prefer all these people go back in the closet rather than be inconvenienced by having to acknowledge their existence, but are you really daft enough to think this is something dreamed up in the 2010s? For fuck sake...
ok, then what about the 16th century, 5th, 2nd, 100 B.C, 200 B.C?
Yes, homosexuality and non-gender conforming individuals have existed throughout human history and across all cultures with varying social attitudes toward them. You know, you're quite opinionated for someone with no demonstrable understanding of the topic, but I suppose that explains a lot.
You're talking as if transgenderism and homosexuality (and their problems) emerged in the 19th century. That's why I asked you about the other centuries?
Pederasty was a socially acceptable thing back in 600 b.c amongst the Etruscans, for example.
I neither said nor implied any such thing. You brought up books written in the 1800s which is why my initial reply specifically focused on the 19th century. You're either dumb or you're here in bad faith, but based on your last sentence, being a weak attempt to shift the conversation from LGBTQ and non-binary people to pederasts, which is straight out of the right-wing playbook, it's safe to assume the latter. So we're done here.
lol, right-wing playbook... dude, I'm anything but right-wing
Man. I really wanted to support you, but you're making it very difficult.
You're offended by an accusation of being right-wing instead of listening to what they (the person) haslve to say. In turn, you just linked gay people to pedophiles - perhaps unintentionally, but damn, man. That's actually bigot talk. Now, I'm not saying you are. But again, take a step back and reflect in how you approach these themes. Otherwise you'll be making more harm than good.
This wiki page, not itself as an original source but as a collection of original papers in the references for you to peruse at your leisure is a great starting point. But your question is a bit like the “Did you know Aristotle never said ‘Thank You’? Mostly because he didn’t speak English.” Joke. You are expecting modern accommodations and language in texts from a different era that would have used unfamiliar forms or language like ancient Egypt that had a 3rd gender “sekhet”.