this post was submitted on 05 Jul 2024
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Politics
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Could somebody explain this to me (I'm from Belgium, so we have proportional representation)? Is it similar to the USA with each state going to a single party?
Basically, yes. Each of the 650 constituencies votes in a single member of parliament, even if they don't get 50% of the vote, just more votes than anyone else. So if you have 3 constituencies that all vote 40% Labour, 35% Conservative, and 25% Lib Dem, you will get 3 Labour MPs, even though if it were proportional, you shpuld get at least 1 Conservative MP (sorry Lib Dems, too small a sample to let you have one too)
Thanks, this is very clear and also insane that it's still that way. I thought the US was the only place where popular vote differed from the actually elected officials!
The only other European country which has FPTP voting is Belarus.
Canada has it too and Trudeau reneged on his promise to ditch it.
What kind of dumpster fire voting system is that? They should be forced to fix it if tgey ever want to rejoin the EU.
We had a referendun on it in 2011 68% voted to keep FPTP instead of switching to Alternative Vote.