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Other 196's:
The article outlined reasons for that to be happening in Japan, and references India for similarity, it didn’t imply that that is a universal response to gender inequality, simply that the reason for that specific phenomenon in Japanese culture is likely because of gender inequality, which seems more than a reasonable conclusion to me, especially when you look at the 80’s business woman culture era and how there was a decline in that specific behavior.
Also, I’m very much not seeing what you’re saying about your interpretation of feminism being present in the article. Gender inequality is a thing, objectively, to address that as a part that plays relevance in any given context doesn’t require feminist values.