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Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

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[-] MasterBlaster@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago

For those who are interested enough to read some fairly dense text on the topic here is a website for you. land value taxation: urban land values

this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
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Economics

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