7
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
this post was submitted on 06 Jul 2023
7 points (55.7% liked)
Asklemmy
43859 readers
1706 users here now
A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions
If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!
- Open-ended question
- Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
- Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
- Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
- An actual topic of discussion
Looking for support?
Looking for a community?
- Lemmyverse: community search
- sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
- !lemmy411@lemmy.ca: a community for finding communities
~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
Many "indigenous" people stole land from other " indigenous" people before Britain, France, and Spain stole the country from the indigenous people. The US took the land from Britain by war. It got the land from Spain and France through war/purchase.
That's a very compressed 400 year history, so some facts are more nuanced, but that's my point about saying the land was stolen. Every country was "stolen" from someone else sometime in history either through war or purchase.
How many of those forcibly displaced and nearly wiped out the previous "owners"?
Not to start a debate, but how many civilizations did the same before? I don't see many Babylonians around.
Not to say that doing it makes it ok, but just because we have written history of some civilizations and not others should be taken into account.