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submitted 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) by hypertown@lemmy.world to c/memes@lemmy.ml
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[-] TokyoMonsterTrucker@lemmy.dbzer0.com 15 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Easiest explanation I can think of using the division law for exponents:

Since we can use any number for the initial fraction, as long as the denominator is the same as the numerator, any number to the zeroth power is equal to 1. In general terms, then, for any number, x:

this post was submitted on 11 Oct 2023
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