310
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[-] Dkarma@lemmy.world -4 points 1 year ago

No it's more about how the state justifies enforcement the law and jurisdiction. This all started with the Moors and the whole jurisdiction argument. The Moors argue that there is no law of man that supercedes god so they used to go into court and argue under what jurisdiction granted by God did the court have. Obv it is none so the Moors argued that the court establishing jurisdiction was a violation of Moors constitutional rights.

Further complicating things is the assumption of a contract. Technically none of us agreed to be bound by laws just by being born here. So how can the state assert you agreed not to break these laws? The state is saying u broke a contract that you technically never agreed to.

To complicate things even further the law is not applied equally. Police and judges are 100% discretionary if they want to be.

So in their minds the cops don't have to enforce anything and what they're enforcing is a contract the person getting arrested or charged never agreed to in the first place.

[-] SomeoneSomewhere@lemmy.nz 7 points 11 months ago

I think you may be going down the SovCit rabbit hole yourself.

Yes, that's basically accurate for contracts. Actual law does not require you to consent to it. An entity with the authority and ability to unilaterally create and enforce law is basically the definition of a government. By existing within their territory, you are subject to their jurisdiction.

Many countries do not have a formal constitution. The constitution is a limit on the powers of government, not the source of the powers in the first place.

this post was submitted on 27 Oct 2023
310 points (98.7% liked)

InsanePeopleFacebook

2625 readers
18 users here now

Screenshots of people being insane on Facebook. Please censor names/pics of end users in screenshots. Please follow the rules of lemmy.world

founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS