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Whats your such opinion
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this post was submitted on 07 Dec 2023
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Asklemmy
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The inverse of the function is f(x)^-1. i.e. the negative exponent applies to the whole function, not just the x (since f(x) is a single term).
You can define your notation that way if youlike to, doesn't change the fact that commonly
f^{-1}(x)is and has been used that way forever.If I read this somewhere, without knowing the conventions the author uses, it's ambiguous
Nothing to do with me - it's in Maths textbooks.
Well they should all be following the rules of Maths, without needing to have that stated.
Exactly! It's in math textbooks, in both ways! Ambiguous notation, one might say.
And both ways are explained, so not ambiguous which is which.
Yeah, doesn't mean that you know what an author is talking about when you encounter it doing actual math
The notation is not intrinsically clear, as any human writing. Ambiguous, one may say.
It is to me, I actually teach how to write it.
We've been at this point, I'm not going to explain this again. But you weren't able to read a single sentence of a wikipedia article without me handfeeding it to you, so I guess I shouldn't be surprised. I'm sorry for your students.
And I told you why it was wrong, which is why I read Maths textbooks and not wikipedia.
My students are doing good thanks
Apparently you can't read either textbooks or wikipedia and understand it.
Also, wait, you're just a tutor and not actually a teacher? Being wrong about some incredibly basic thing in your field is one thing, but lying about that is just disrespectful, especially since you drop that in basically every sentence.
Both - see the problem with the logic you use?
Let me know when you decide to consult a textbook about this.
I'm not using logic in this case, you are just being insincere. Let me know when you bother to try to understand anything I or the authors of your holy textbooks wrote.