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Weird question from a weird guy
(files.catbox.moe)
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this post was submitted on 08 Aug 2024
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Yes. But apparently you don't.
Yes, the UK uses common law. Also, so do many current or former "Commonwealth", including, but not limited to, the USA.
Common law is why overturning Roe v. Wade made abortion bans possible. Roe v. Wade was the common law precedent that allowed for women to have the right to an abortion.
And no, contacts cannot overrule the law, whether from a law passed by the governing body, or by common law. This is why i essentially said, if you don't like it/agree with it, change the laws.
Make it illegal. Change the law to make it illegal.
Then, regardless of the contract, it is a crime.
As for the rich and any affect this might have on me.... The rich do this shit, not to dehumanize us "Poor's", but because they've already dehumanized us. I don't think this is a cause, this is an effect.
But I'll give you an upvote for sharing your opinion. I'll fight anyone who tries to take your opinion away from you.
Oh you went from "pretty much everywhere" to "well, uh, many commonwealth countries".
You sure you didn't have to go check what it meant, and then you were shocked at how many of what we'd consider "developed countries" actually do not use common law?
In the EU, only Ireland still has common law.
All others use civil law. And I'm sure you didn't know that. :)
And precedent is present in civil law systems as well.