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submitted 1 week ago by robinoberg@feddit.uk to c/economics@lemmy.ml
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[-] BlueFootedBooby@lemm.ee -3 points 1 week ago

I dunno man, ever since someone invented money, there always were rich and poor people, and class division

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 4 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Capitalism arose well after money, it's a specific mode of production.

[-] BlueFootedBooby@lemm.ee 0 points 1 week ago

Yeah, because the previous prelevant system, feudalism, was so fair and not at all exploitative of the poor by the rich

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 week ago

Feudalism was also exploitative, but in a different manner and character as the class character was different. I don't see what your point is, here.

[-] rapchee@lemmy.world 4 points 1 week ago

using money does not mean it's capitalism
but i do think that capitalism is better than feudalism and most, if not all that came before
but i also think that we need to move further, or we're getting screwed

[-] dessalines@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 week ago

Wrong again. The earliest date possible you could put on the emergence of class societies, would be ~12k years ago with the agricultural revolution. Modern humans emerged about 300k years ago, and 2 million years if you want to consider other close relatives.

So most charitably, class societies have only existed for 4% of human history, or 0.6%

[-] BlueFootedBooby@lemm.ee -1 points 1 week ago

Okay, I said "when money was invented" not "when humanity emerged" mr WRONG AGAIN ๐Ÿ™„ Learn to read if you want to be bitchy on the Internet

this post was submitted on 09 Mar 2025
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