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this post was submitted on 18 Aug 2025
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Question 5 is incorrect,
name@exampleis a fully valid email address, even after RFC 2822The spec of RFC 2822 defines an address (3.4.1) as:
domainis defined (3.4.1) as:dot-atomis defined (3.2.4) as:1*atextmeaning at least 1 alphanumeric character, followed by*("." 1*atext)meaning at least 0"." 1*atextIf tomorrow, google decided to use its
googletop-level domain as an email domain, it would be perfectly valid, as could any other company owning top-level domainsGoogle even owns a
gmailTLD so I wouldn't even be surprised if they decided to use itI don't know if they changes the answer to the question, but it now says
name@exampleis valid.It does say it's valid, but also that it's obsolete, and while the RFC does define valid but obsolete specs, there is nothing defining domains without a dot as obsolete, and it is in fact defined in the regular spec, not the obsolete section
I see what you mean, I'm with you now.
It says valid but obsolete, which sounds like a contradiction to me.
Do email suffix not indicate a different domain like .org and .com for websites?
I didn't understand this one. How do you have a no dot domain? Like you need to distinguish from example.com or example.wtf
Edit: do you mean if you own
.googleyou can have youremail@googleaddress?Yes, the top-level domain is still just a domain. I'm not aware of any public Internet services which are reachable from a TLD directly, and it's strongly discouraged by ICANN, but there isn't any technical limitation preventing e.g. someone at Verisign from setting up
example@com.