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submitted 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) by DieguiTux8623@feddit.it to c/linguistics_humor@sh.itjust.works

An isogloss or a political border? 🥶🥶🥶

Cross-posted from: https://lemmit.online/post/1728128

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[-] lvxferre@lemmy.ml 2 points 10 months ago

Relevant detail: Ottoman Turkish ⟨فستق‎⟩ fıstık borrowed it from Arabic ⟨فُسْتُق‎⟩ fustuq, that borrowed it from Middle Persian - the same variety as Greek and then Latin did. So odds are that the f-variation was caused by Arabic rendering a foreign [p] as [f], and probably predates Persian itself internally undergoing a p→f shift. Source.

this post was submitted on 24 Dec 2023
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