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Wait, really? I must be missing something here. Even though it's surprising to me, I can believe that Canada is actually a bit worse off than the US with respect to housing prices. But not only is this a drastic difference (hundreds of percent), this graph implies that from 1989 to 2005 and again from 2008 until covid, the US had a higher real disposable income than the real housing prices and that disposable income vs housing prices in the US have been pretty much in parity the whole time. Is it something like the wealthiest percentiles are skewing the data for the US to make it appear like people in general can afford homes? (GDP shows the economy is great actually!) If that's the case, why isn't the same true of the Canadian data set?
i'm not sure what the y-axis is meant to indicate. looks like the whole graph is a % compared to 1975? but the absolute values of the red and blue line might not have been the same to begin with. I guess you'd have to ask the Dallas Federal Reserve which is the source?