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Does “and” really mean “and”? Not always, the Supreme Court rules.
(www.motherjones.com)
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this post was submitted on 29 Mar 2024
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Yeah, I feel like the article should have made reference to De Morgan's Law in order to explain the two interpretations. That's the one that says !(A && B && C) = !A || !B || !C, and !(A || B || C) = !A && !B && !C.
In English, there's no proper grouping operator, so it's basically it's a question of whether you distribute the NOT or the AND first over the list.
The Justices are saying that the ambiguity is completely resolved by the way the restrictions don't make sense if you interpret it the other way. But the underlying assumption there is that the laws of this country are logical, free from needless repetition and contradictory requirements, which is a TERRIBLE assumption. Our laws are at best written by a committee of people not very familiar with the subjects of those laws, and at worst written by scam artists who then paid to slip them under the radar and into the books. They're full of idiotic errors, deliberate sabotage, and absurdities. That's the whole reason for the thing about the lenient interpretation, and this decision will change that in a way that gives judges a whole lot of power to do more harm.
I can tell you that as a lawyer whose done a lot of writing on statutory interpretation, I've never seen a case make arguments with this sort of notation.
This case seems clear to me.
I wasn't suggesting the lawyers or the Justices should have talked about DeMorgan's law, but rather that it would have been a helpful point for Mother Jones to bring up in the article, to make sure people are on the same page about the logic. You're right that the notation is probably not helpful though.
The actual legal argument is pretty simple. The law as written is maximally lenient, but also not very logically consistent (e.g. the redundancy indicated in the article). So it seems like some kind of error occurred in the law-writing process. The question is whether they actually meant to write it as maximally restrictive or whether they screwed up in some other way. That certainly seems like ambiguity (a stance supported by the evidence that multiple courts decided these cases in different ways), and the prior standard was that in the case of ambiguity, you had to interpret the law to the benefit of the defendants, which here would be maximally lenient, and indeed also as written. The supreme court has basically reversed that, saying that you can interpret it as maximally restrictive as long as you're pretty sure that's what they meant to say. That's a very different standard.
I think this case is maybe the equivalent of that photo of a striped dress that blew up the Internet a few years ago. Nobody thinks it's particularly ambiguous, but they come to totally different conclusions about what the obvious correct answer is; just because the ambiguity isn't necessarily obvious to the individual reader doesn't mean it's not there.
I would generally interpret a list as a grouping operator in English writing. The "and" is within the group, and in the structure of a regular grouping clause: "a, b, and c". If you wrote "does not have a, b, and c" it would be an extremely tortured reading to apply "not" before "and", especially because there are multiple other ways in English you would write that, e.g. "not have a, b, or c" or "not have any of a, b, and c".
Yeah, this decision assumes that the people who wrote the laws are very precise in their attention to detail and would never leave in a useless clause, while also being so inattentive to language that they wrote an "or" clause with "and" (or at least didn't choose a structure that left no ambiguity).
Topping it all off is going through this whole set of trials with a third of them dissenting and saying "there is no ambiguity anywhere in this law".
I mostly agree with you. The AND was kind of crammed in outside the list too, though; they'd written it as NOT bullet: limit 1, bullet: limit 2, AND bullet: limit 3. Basically I don't think it's implausible that they intended it to be maximally restrictive and just screwed that up. I just think that applying the law as though it means that requires interpreting the law differently from how it's written, and different in a way that harms the defendants, which you previously weren't supposed to do. Which seems super dumb.