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Does “and” really mean “and”? Not always, the Supreme Court rules.
(www.motherjones.com)
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this post was submitted on 29 Mar 2024
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I can tell you that as a lawyer whose done a lot of writing on statutory interpretation, I've never seen a case make arguments with this sort of notation.
This case seems clear to me.
I wasn't suggesting the lawyers or the Justices should have talked about DeMorgan's law, but rather that it would have been a helpful point for Mother Jones to bring up in the article, to make sure people are on the same page about the logic. You're right that the notation is probably not helpful though.
The actual legal argument is pretty simple. The law as written is maximally lenient, but also not very logically consistent (e.g. the redundancy indicated in the article). So it seems like some kind of error occurred in the law-writing process. The question is whether they actually meant to write it as maximally restrictive or whether they screwed up in some other way. That certainly seems like ambiguity (a stance supported by the evidence that multiple courts decided these cases in different ways), and the prior standard was that in the case of ambiguity, you had to interpret the law to the benefit of the defendants, which here would be maximally lenient, and indeed also as written. The supreme court has basically reversed that, saying that you can interpret it as maximally restrictive as long as you're pretty sure that's what they meant to say. That's a very different standard.
I think this case is maybe the equivalent of that photo of a striped dress that blew up the Internet a few years ago. Nobody thinks it's particularly ambiguous, but they come to totally different conclusions about what the obvious correct answer is; just because the ambiguity isn't necessarily obvious to the individual reader doesn't mean it's not there.