Am I reading this right in that it’s a percentage of homes (dwellings) occupied by the owner compared to the percentage of people that own their home? Like if you have a family of 4 in a house and they rent out a (legal) basement suite to two individual renters, is that counted as one owner-occupied dwelling out of two dwellings on the property; (50% homeowner occupied or 100% homeowner occupied. Compared again to say having 6 people, of which one or two(is that family of 4 a couple or single parent) are homeowners.

The "total number of owners" link goes here. I'm not really sure how to read what come up, though. I actually wonder if the site was bugging out.

Here's the actual exchange. Not to give them traffic, but maybe like me you want to click through to something else.

According to other people in that thread, it goes down to 30% or 40% if you don't include people who just live together with a homeowner. Honestly that doesn't change the story much for the purpose of OP, IMO.