836
Porque no los Dos?
(lemmy.world)
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Precisely. It is “el género no binario” or “la persona no binaria”. It has nothing to do with the person, just the nouns. As “binario/a” is an adjective, it has no gender on its own.
This legitimately trips up learners. How if the noun is female, it's correct to use feminine articles/pronouns/etc regardless of the person's gender, even if you know they're male. (or vice-versa).
That and plurals defaulting to male.
Just be careful, because the person can be the noun, then the adjective takes on the person's desired gender.
Except when referring to a group of women. Like “Dos profesoras”
It might be, you know, hear me out, that "grammatical gender" is a historical misnomer caused by linguistics initially practically only looking at Indo-European languages, which tend to have three noun classes with the word for "woman", "man", and "thing" all being in a different category so they became known as feminine, masculine, and neuter, with words assigned to them pseudo-randomly via phonetics. But really noun classes are a much more general thing, Bantu languages have up to 20. Persons, fruits, plants, locations, such things.
At least in Indo-European languages it's mostly about ease of reference: "I see a cup and a table. She is broken". Assuming that cup is female and table male (as in German) that is a very clear and concise statement.
As someone currently learning, this is really useful to know
And if the noun is a person's name? Then how do you determine whether to use the masculine or feminine version of non-binary?
I think the default or mixed gender plural is the masculine io ending. Them's the rules of Spanish, as I was taught.
The current proposal is to use an “e” ending. “mi amigue Charlie es no binarie”.