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[-] Teodomo@lemmy.world 14 points 4 months ago

I'm not an American so I'm not sure I understand. Wikipedia says voter turnout in 2016 was 59.2% of the voting-eligible population. Even if we count is a percentage of the voting-age population (i.e. including people with felonies or without citizenship or barred from voting for other reasons) it's still 54.8% voter turnout.

But that bar at the top of the graph makes it look like only around 15% voted.

Can someone explain?

[-] Wizard_Pope@lemmy.world 17 points 4 months ago

Does the top graph not just show that all the gray states had people that did not vote be the largest percentage.

So if for example 30% voted for Biden and 31% for Trump, you still have 39% that did not vote thus making the non voter 'candidate' win.

In this case the voter turnout is 61% yet the non voters represent the biggest share.

[-] AngryCommieKender@lemmy.world 15 points 4 months ago

It's cause by FPTP. If the largest share of voters in a given state were people that didn't vote, all the electoral college votes should go to "did not vote." That doesn't happen IRL because they just ignore low voter turnout.

[-] takeheart@lemmy.world 2 points 4 months ago

It's true but for the broader picture one should add that many people don't bother to vote if their state is predicted to be a landslide victory for either candidate.

[-] LodeMike@lemmy.today 4 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

40.6% is bigger than half of 59.2%

this post was submitted on 22 Jul 2024
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