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No evidence of genocide in Gaza, UK lawyers say in arms export case
(www.theguardian.com)
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this post was submitted on 19 May 2025
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BadEmpanada made a video arguing that the term "genocide" should be done away with because of how much it muddies the waters (as an example he compared the Srebrenica Massacre, declared a genocide in court, versus comparable massacres elsewhere in Bosnia that weren't). It also overlaps with a bunch of other legal terms like crimes against humanity, so it ends up diminishing atrocities that come close but for one reason or another aren't considered one.
Honestly I agree. “Genocide” requires intent, and just like with individual level crimes proving “intent” makes things way more difficult even when the perpetrator keeps shouting “Mass murder is my intent!”
Intent shouldn’t matter. Whether you intended to kill hundreds of thousands of civilians or if they actually were incidental in your quest to “destroy Hamas” doesn’t fucking matter, you killed hundreds of thousands of civilians, that should be the crime in itself.
If it requires intent you have it in spades with the Zionazis.
yeah but in this case they literally do say that
Oh yeah I’m well aware, even with that requirement this is the clearest most documented case of “definitely genocide” that has ever been, Nazi Germany was not this explicit about their intent.
But I do think that intent question should be done away with all together and having it just gives Israel another way to deflect and delay and question.
Also I guess my solution isn’t getting rid of the word genocide, it’s just getting rid of the requirement of intent for calling something a genocide. It should just be based on something like percentage civilians vs fighters killed, attacks on civilians infrastructure (deliberate or not) and some other clearly defined metrics that you could know without ever speaking to one of the perpetrators.
On a regular basis zionists officals look straight at the camera and say lets do the holocaust but to palestinians.
They arent hiding shit, the only reason why isntreal isnt nuremberged yet is because of its usefulness to do internal fascism and imperialize the middle east.
genocide is a legally defined term set up after ww2, it is actually useful but like everything else its overusage is intentional to lessen any planned genocide by the west.
The term itself precedes World War 2, Raphael Lemkin coined it in the wake of the Armenian Genocide, I'm pretty sure.
Ward churchill has an interesting conversation about this at the beginning of his book Kill the Indian Save the Man He notes how Lemkins definition was gutted and stripped down to the current UN definition. Mainly because western powers like the US, France, UK, etc. could wash their hands of their own atrocities without being charged with genocide. It also was watered down in a way that let academia decide that genocide had only occurred once, to Jewish people at the hands of the nazis. Which in itself ignores the other genocide victims like Romani people at the hands of the nazis. He says this has allowed the zionist entity to gain unique political advantages as the sole victims of genocide in history. Its a very interesting read.
Another interesting point he notes is that despite most of the world ratifying rhe 1948 genocide convention, the US wouldnt do so until 1988. This is because congress couldnt pass it. There was extensive debate in congress whether Jim Crow or the indigenous genocide here on turtle island would open the door for the US to be charged. So, when they ratified it the US attached a reservation which stated the US constitution was the supreme law and superseded the Genocide convention. After the US attached this reservation, many western powers that had already ratified decades before submitted their own, similar reservations.
It was not legally defined. This happened due to need for the nuremberg trials.