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No evidence of genocide in Gaza, UK lawyers say in arms export case
(www.theguardian.com)
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this post was submitted on 19 May 2025
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genocide is a legally defined term set up after ww2, it is actually useful but like everything else its overusage is intentional to lessen any planned genocide by the west.
The term itself precedes World War 2, Raphael Lemkin coined it in the wake of the Armenian Genocide, I'm pretty sure.
Ward churchill has an interesting conversation about this at the beginning of his book Kill the Indian Save the Man He notes how Lemkins definition was gutted and stripped down to the current UN definition. Mainly because western powers like the US, France, UK, etc. could wash their hands of their own atrocities without being charged with genocide. It also was watered down in a way that let academia decide that genocide had only occurred once, to Jewish people at the hands of the nazis. Which in itself ignores the other genocide victims like Romani people at the hands of the nazis. He says this has allowed the zionist entity to gain unique political advantages as the sole victims of genocide in history. Its a very interesting read.
Another interesting point he notes is that despite most of the world ratifying rhe 1948 genocide convention, the US wouldnt do so until 1988. This is because congress couldnt pass it. There was extensive debate in congress whether Jim Crow or the indigenous genocide here on turtle island would open the door for the US to be charged. So, when they ratified it the US attached a reservation which stated the US constitution was the supreme law and superseded the Genocide convention. After the US attached this reservation, many western powers that had already ratified decades before submitted their own, similar reservations.
It was not legally defined. This happened due to need for the nuremberg trials.