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this post was submitted on 02 Oct 2025
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There are infinitely many rational numbers between any two integers (or any two rationals), yet the rationals are still countable, so this reasoning doesn't hold.
The only simple intuition for the uncountability of the reals I know of is Cantor's diagonal argument.
You can assign each rational number a single unique integer though if you use a simple algorithm. So the 1:1 correspondence holds up (though both are still infinite)