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Kremlin outraged by detention of Russian shadow fleet tanker, calls it "piracy"
(www.pravda.com.ua)
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this post was submitted on 01 Jun 2026
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No. Piracy cannot be applied to actions of a state agency.
~~Who~~ Why not?
Piracy by definition only applies to private entities.
Ok, how do we call it when a state does piracy?
We don’t, as it’s impossible for a state to commit piracy.
ie illegally according to international law seize a foreign ship in international waters and sell it's cargo for own profit. How do we call that? Not talking about this case.
Depends what the foreign ship was up to. Could be drug interdiction, sanctions enforcement, warfare etc.
Let's say transporting oil. Nothing illegal according to international laws.
Depends on the ship. You may remember an incident a few months ago where the US intercepted a tanker departing Venuzuela. The tanker was trying to evade sanctions by flying a false flag. This made it stateless and therefore it was within the rights of the US to sieze it and its cargo.
Is it really? I get seizure and everything, but selling it - I guess that could be possible only if owner didn't pay a fine and wouldn't oppose it legally?
OTOH what'd happen if the ship is in order and it still happened that? Or just seizure and torture of its crew just like happened with Global Sumud Flotilla?
Getting off topic here. The actions of a state may not be lawful or justifiable, but they aren’t piracy.
Sure, but how do we call such actions? Just unlawful?
Mostly. In specific circumstances actions can be a cassus belli.
A state can't do piracy itself, so nothing. Define your question in words that are not self contradictory.