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this post was submitted on 06 Feb 2024
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chapotraphouse
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My understanding is that that's pop history and that the ancient Greeks were very, extremely, violently homophobic. MLM sex was about the worst thing you could do and if you got caught you'd be publicly shamed for the rest of your life if not outright killed.
This post calling Alexander the Great gay is questionable too but eh.
It varied hugely by city-state, but most were at least pretty OK with pederasty. A young boy having a sexual relationship with an adult man was seen as a pretty normal part of most educational/mentorship relationships. In the city-states where it was more frowned on, it was the "receiver" role that tended to be stigmatized, rather than the relationship as a whole. Hence all the references to eunuchs here: since they didn't have to worry about being emasculated, it tended to be a lot more acceptable. Adult men who preferred to bottom were definitely stigmatized in a lot of places, though.
Correct me if I'm wrong but pederasty wasn't supposed to be sexual. It was a mentorship-like relationship between an educated man and a young boy where the man taught the boy like a son. Sex in this relationship was condemned as much as modern pedophile teachers would be.
Also, saying that ancient Greeks were gay because some men molested their students is... not the argument people think it is.
You're wrong, sex in the relationship was absolutely not condemned, it was very typical and expected. It is very well attested and this isn't a controversial or conjectured position.
I agree that ancient Greece is not a good example of a society with chill views on sexuality, but there's no reason to deny reality.
We also have examples of adult to adult homosexuality like the sacred band of Thebes, where it wasn’t just accepted but required. So it was a mixed bag.
It wasn't condemned, really? I'd like a source on that please. From what I've read, sexual pederasty was considered an obscene transgression. The relationship was not meant to be sexual though child abuse did happen.
Is that really so hard to believe? I mean, ancient Greek society thought little of women and thought even less of men "who took on the women's role" so why would Greek parents send off their boys to be violated? The Greeks also greatly valued sexual temperance and monogamy so I'm pretty sure they wouldn't want men acting like satyrs with their sons.