How do folks bemoaning the lack of a global communist revolution in the 1910s reconcile that with the mass starvations that happened in the two largest communist countries? (lemmy.world)

submitted 8 months ago by Lauchs@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.world

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Having large numbers of people starve to death seems like a pretty damning indictment of a system. But I dunno, maybe I'm overly attached to food?

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[-] Windex007@lemmy.world 4 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago)

It's obviously a loaded question.

But I am still curious as to a historical interpretation of events.

Edit: even a historical awareness of events. W/ the Holodomor specifically, I expect in the immediate post WWII landscape, there would be no western interest on even recognizing it as occurred? I expect there would be at least an eastern European awareness, but was their media already under the thumb on the government?

Again, would love just an objective answer to the question instead of people just whattabouting the obvious ragebait

this post was submitted on 17 Mar 2024

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