792
rule, innit (ukfli.uk)
submitted 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) by flamingos@ukfli.uk to c/196@lemmy.blahaj.zone
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[-] jsomae@lemmy.ml 28 points 7 months ago

There is no evidence that it comes from Portuguese. It most likely comes from Korean. Wind-on-the-panes is bullshitting (convincingly!)

[-] power@lemmy.blahaj.zone 12 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago)

I wouldn't say it comes from Korean, more like it and its analog in Korean probably have a shared origin due to the mixing of ancient Koreanic and Japonic peoples pre-migration and during migration. It may have come from a different language that doesn't exist today, it may have originated in proto-Korean or proto-Japanese, or Koreanic and Japonic language speakers may have just changed each others language in a way which caused the particle to emerge in both languages (which is certainly plausible given how much they influenced each other's grammar in general).

[-] jsomae@lemmy.ml 3 points 7 months ago
[-] SeabassDan@lemmy.world 2 points 7 months ago

So you're saying it still could've come from Portuguese??

[-] jsomae@lemmy.ml 8 points 7 months ago

From what I've researched online, the consensus among linguists is that it is not Portuguese in origin. I haven't found anyone opining this other than this tumblr user in fact. Anything is possible, but this seems completely ungrounded.

this post was submitted on 18 Apr 2024
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