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this post was submitted on 23 Oct 2024
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I just wonder if it's true. It's certainly true for many indo-european languages, but I wonder if there's been a typological study with a representative sample of languages done for it. I'm not sure I buy it being a language univeral.
https://www.cell.com/current-biology/fulltext/S0960-9822(17)31114-4?xid=PS_smithsonian
I know I've read a handful of things roughly a long these line, that basically it's probably not universal that humans simplify language for infants, but that we likely do shift how we vocalize to them.
Seems like a reasonably plausible hypothesis to me.
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