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Not the same
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this post was submitted on 15 Feb 2025
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Sorry to get mathematical..
P(A∣B)=P(A) iff
P(B∣A)=P(B) iff
P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B)
->𝐴 and 𝐵 are uncorrelated or independent.
There is no correlation with events with probability 1
isn't that just Bayesian apologist propaganda?
*jumps in an unlabelled Frequentist van* "Floor it!"
Don't even need to bring probability into this. Death is certain, and correlation requires variance.